DBasia.news – Jorginho’s agent, Joao Santos, has revealed that his client could leave Chelsea this summer because he has a “dream” of returning to Serie A.
The 30-year-old midfielder has been a key player for Thomas Tuchel’s side this season. He has scored nine goals and provided three assists in 38 appearances across all competitions.
However, Jorginho’s long-term future at Stamford Bridge is uncertain. His contract expires in June 2023 and the current ownership turmoil at the club has prevented Chelsea from extending his contract due to the sanctions imposed on Roman Abramovich.
Joao Santos previously revealed that Italian giants Juventus had expressed their interest in signing Jorgie, but now he claims that his client could also play for other big Serie A clubs such as AC Milan, Inter Milan, Napoli and AS Roma if he ultimately decides. to leave Stamford Bridge.
“Playing in Serie A is a dream for him and his heart remains here (Italy),” Santos told Tuttomercatoweb.
“For now, he can play for four or five clubs, namely Milan, Inter, Juve, Roma or Napoli.”
In addition, Santos also claimed that PSG and Barcelona had previously held talks with the midfielder.
“There are a lot of clubs interested in him. In the past I spoke to PSG, Barcelona and also Ricky Massara from Milan. I don’t know if the Rossoneri are still interested.”
“The facts haven’t changed, we can’t do anything now because Chelsea are not allowed to sell, buy or renew contracts. Jorginho has a contract until June 2023, after the World Cup we will look to work on an renewal.”
Since signing from Napoli in 2018, Jorginho has made 179 appearances in all competitions and has won four major trophies including last month’s Club World Cup.